EWAN Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0)
1

Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?

ccna 4 final 2012

interface reset

unplugged cable

improper LMI type

PPP negotiation failure

2

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?

ccna 4 final 2012

frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2

frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2

frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

3
Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?

ATM

Frame Relay

HDLC

PPP

SDLC

4

Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

ccna 4 final 2012

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6

NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address

a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2

static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

5
Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?

protocol type

source IP address

source MAC address

destination IP address

destination MAC address

6

Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?

The clock rate must be 56000.

The usernames are misconfigured.

The IP addresses are on different subnets.

The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.

Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.

7
Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)

It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.

It defines a process for managing security violations.

It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.

The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.

It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.

It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.

8
A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?

Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.

Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.

Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

9

Refer to the exhibit. Headquarters is connected through the Internet to branch office A and branch office B. Which WAN technology would be best suited to provide secure connectivity between headquarters and both branch offices?

ccna 4 final 2012

ATM

VPN

ISDN

Frame Relay

broadband DSL

10
Which statement about a VPN is true?

VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.

DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.

VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.

Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.

11
A company is deciding which WAN connection type it should implement between its main office and branch offices. The company wants to use a cost-effective service that provides virtual circuits between each office. The company also wants to be able to transmit variable-length packets on these circuits. Which solution best meets these requirements?

ATM

HDLC

ISDN

Frame Relay

12
A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?

Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations.

Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.

Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.

Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with.

13

Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?

DLCI 123

DLCI 321

10.10.10.25

10.10.10.26

MAC address of the Orlando router

14

Refer to the exhibit. This router is being configured to use SDM, but the SDM interface of the router cannot be accessed. What is the cause of the problem?

The VTY lines are not configured correctly.

The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

The authentication method is not configured correctly.

The username and password are not configured correctly.

15
Which two devices can be used by teleworkers who need to connect to the company network across the PSTN for a few hours a day? (Choose two.)

router

CSU/DSU

DSL modem

cable modem

access server

dialup modem

16
An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.

Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.

RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.

IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

17
What is the function of an intrusion detection system on a network?

to restrict access to only authorized users

to detect attacks against a network and send logs to a management console

to prevents attack against the network and provide active defense mechanisms

to detect and prevent most viruses and many Trojan horse applications from spreading in the network

18

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?

The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.

STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.

Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.

S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

19
When Frame Relay encapsulation is used, what feature provides flow control and exchanges information about the status of virtual circuits?

LCP

LMI

DLCI

Inverse ARP

20
A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure DHCP and static NAT.

Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.

Configure static NAT for all ten users.

Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

21
A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)

reduced jitter

reduced costs

reduced latency

the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth

the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

22
What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.

Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.

The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

23

Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.3.17″. What is the problem?

The address 192.168.3.17 address is already in use by Fa0/0.

The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is configured incorrectly.

The ip helper-address command should be used on the Fa0/0 interface.

The 192.168.3.17 address has not been excluded from the 192Network pool.

24

Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?

application

transport

network

data link

physical

25
What three questions can be answered using data gathered from a baseline on a new network? (Choose three.)

Are areas of the network experiencing high error rates?

Will the disaster recovery procedures work correctly?

What parts of the network have the highest volume?

Does the organization require more network technicians?

How does the network perform during peak periods?

Are there any devices working at top capacity?

What networks are the most susceptible to security attacks?

26
Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?

extended

reflexive

standard

time-based

27

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to Web Server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from Web Server when received at R1?

10.1.1.2:80

10.1.1.2:1234

172.30.20.1:1234

172.30.20.1:3333

28
An administrator issues the command show interfaces s0/1/0 on a router that is configured for Frame Relay. Which console output may indicate an LMI mismatch?

Serial0/1/0 is administratively down

Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is up

Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is down

Serial0/1/0 is down, line protocol is down

29
A recently patched application server is experiencing response time problems. The network on which the application server is located has been experiencing occasional outages that the network team believes may be related to recent routing changes. Network and application teams have been notified to work on their respective issues. Which statement applies to this situation?

Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.

Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.

It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.

Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.

30

Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.

LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.

The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.

The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.

31

Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN will carry untagged traffic on FastEthernet 0/1?

VLAN 1

VLAN 2

VLAN 11

VLAN 12

VLAN 30

VLAN 999

32
What is an accurate description of CHAP when used with PPP on a serial connection between two routers?

A username and password are sent to the peer router, which replies with an accept or reject message.

A username and password are sent to the peer router. If these match the configuration in the peer, the peer in turn provides a username and password to the initiating router.

A challenge message is sent to the peer router, which responds with its username and a calculated value based on a shared secret. This value is then compared by the challenger to its own calculations.

An encrypted password is sent to the peer router, which decrypts it and compares it to a shared secret. If the decrypted passwords match, the peer sends the encrypted password back to the initiating router.

33
Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?

local loop

DTE cable on router

demarcation point

demilitarized zone

34

Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?

The commands are added to the end of the existing ACL.

The existing Managers ACL will be overwritten by the new ACL.

The router will output an error message and no changes will be made.

A duplicate Managers ACL will be created that will contain only the new commands.

35
Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session?

PAP uses a two-way handshake.

The password is unique and random.

PAP conducts periodic password challenges.

PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.

36
Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?

PPP with PAP

PPP with CHAP

HDLC with PAP

HDLC with CHAP

37
Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?

BE

DE

CIR

CBIR

38
Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?

Wi-Fi

WiMAX

satellite

Metro Ethernet

39

Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured as a routing protocol on the network. Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 network should have full access to the web server that is connected to 192.168.3.0/24 but should not be allowed to telnet to router R3. Verifying the configuration, the network administrator realizes that users on network 192.168.1.0/24 can successfully telnet to the router. What should be done to remedy the problem?

The ACL 101 statements 10 and 20 should be reversed.

The ACL 101 should be applied on R3 VTY lines 0 4 in the inbound direction.

The ACL 101 should be applied on R3 VTY lines 0 4 in the outbound direction.

The ACL 101 should be applied on R3 Serial0/0/1 interface in the outbound direction.

The ACL 101 statement 10 should be changed to: permit ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any

40
What does an access control list determine when used with NAT on a Cisco router?

addresses that are to be translated

addresses that are assigned to a NAT pool

addresses that are allowed out of the router

addresses that are accessible from the inside network

41
Which IP address and wildcard mask combination can be used in an ACL statement to match the 172.16.0.0/30 network?

172.16.0.0 0.0.0.1

172.16.0.0 0.0.0.3

172.16.0.0 0.0.0.7

172.16.0.0 255.255.255.252

42
Which security solution has the responsibility of monitoring suspicious processes that are running on a host and that might indicate infection of Trojan horse applications?

antivirus application

operating system patches

intrusion prevention system

Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance

43

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to connect R1 remotely to make configuration changes. Based on the exhibited command output, what will be the result when attempting to connect to R1?

failure to connect due to Telnet not being enabled

failure to connect due to incomplete configuration for Telnet

a successful connection and ability to make configuration changes

a successful connection but inability to make configuration changes because of the absence of an enable secret password

44

Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?

There is a Layer 2 loop.

The VTP domain names do not match.

Only one switch can be in server mode.

S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

45
A technician has been asked to run the Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on a customer router. What will be the result of this process?

Traffic is only accepted from and forwarded to SDM-trusted Cisco routers.

Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.

All traffic that enters the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

The router is tested for any potential security problems and all recommended security-related configuration changes will be automatically applied.

46

Refer to the exhibit. Which data transmission technology is being represented?

TDM

PPP

HDLC

SLIP

47
A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which two suggestions should the administrator provide? (Choose two.)

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.

Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.

Place standard ACLs as close to the destination as possible.

ACLs applied to outbound interfaces require fewer router resources.

Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

48

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command would result in the output in the exhibit?

ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 172.16.76.3

ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 192.168.0.10

ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 10.1.200.254

ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 192.168.0.10

ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 172.16.76.3

ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 10.1.200.254

49
What are three important reasons to establish a network baseline? (Choose three.)

to determine the time it takes for the network to self recover from a failure

to determine which areas in the network are underutilized or overutilized

to determine the performance of the network during the normal hours of operation

to determine what thresholds should be set for the devices that need to be monitored

to determine the areas in the network which should not be included in the monitoring process

to determine the number of users whose access to network resources should be restricted

50
Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)

There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.

One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.

Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.

The term “inbound” refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

51
While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows “up, line protocol up”. The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?

application layer

network layer

data link layer

physical layer

52

Refer to the exhibit. Router RT is not receiving routing updates from router RTA. What is causing the problem?

The ip rip authentication key-chain command specifies exam rather than test.

The name of the keystring is not the name of the neighboring router.

The key chains are given the same name on both routers.

The passive-interface command was issued for RTA.

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1. What functionality do access control lists provide in the implementation of dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?

define which addresses can be translated

define which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

define which addresses are allowed out the router

define which addresses can be accessed from the inside network

2. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)

Once a good password is created, do not change it.

Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.

Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.

Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.

Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.

Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.

3.

Refer to the exhibit. Every time the administrator reboots this router, the boot process ends in setup mode. What is a possible problem?

There is insufficient RAM for the IOS to load on this router.

A password recovery process should be done on this router.

The bootstrap version and the version of the IOS are different.

The IOS image is damaged and must be reloaded using tftpdnld.

The configuration register is set to ignore the startup configuration.

4. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?

BE

DE

CIR

CBIR

5.

Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 10.1.1.1″. What is the problem?

The 10.1.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.

The default router for the 10Network pool is incorrect.

The ip helper-address must be added to Fa0/0 interface.

The pool of addresses for the 10Network pool is incorrect.

6. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?

ATM

Frame Relay

HDLC

PPP

SDLC

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?

The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.

The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command.

The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router.

It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.

8. Compared with IDS systems, what can IPS systems do to provide further protection of computer systems?

detect potential attacks

stop the detected attack from executing

update OS patches for computer systems

scan computer systems for viruses and spyware

9. Which IEEE 802.16 broadband wireless technology allows users to connect to the ISP at speeds comparable to DSL and cable?

Wi-Fi

satellite

WiMAX

Metro Ethernet

10. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?

Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.

Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.

Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic in the output of the command?

The bandwidth capability of the interface increases and decreases automatically based on BECNs.

The Serial0/0/1 interface acquired 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.

The mapping between DLCI 100 and 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP.

DLCI 100 will automatically adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.

12. Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?

extended

reflexive

standard

time-based

13. Which two statements are true about IPv6 link local addresses? (Choose two.)

They begin with the 2000::/3 prefix.

They begin with the FE80::/10 prefix.

They are assigned by IANA to an organization.

They must be manually configured by the administrator.

They are assigned to a host by a stateless autoconfiguration process.

14. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)

reduced jitter

reduced costs

reduced latency

the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth

the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

15.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to connect R1 remotely to make configuration changes. Based on the exhibited command output, what will be the result when attempting to connect to R1?

failure to connect due to Telnet not being enabled

failure to connect due to incomplete configuration for Telnet

a successful connection and ability to make configuration changes

a successful connection but inability to make configuration changes because of the absence of an enable secret password

16. What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.)

Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces.

Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access.

Use quotes or phrases to create pass phrases.

Disable the HTTP server service.

Enable SNMP traps.

17. An issue of response time has recently arisen on an application server. The new release of a software package has also been installed on the server. The configuration of the network has changed recently. To identify the problem, individuals from both teams responsible for the recent changes begin to investigate the source of the problem. Which statement applies to this situation?

Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.

It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.

Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.

Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?

application

transport

network

data link

physical

19. Which technology is used to dynamically map next hop, network layer addresses to virtual circuits in a Frame Relay network?

Inverse ARP

LMI

DLCI

FECN

20. An administrator learns of an e-mail that has been received by a number of users in the company. This e-mail appears to come from the office of the administrator. The e-mail asks the users to confirm their account and password information. Which type of security threat does this e-mail represent?

cracking

phishing

phreaking

spamming

21.

Refer to the exhibit. Which data transmission technology is being represented?

TDM

PPP

HDLC

SLIP

22.

Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?

There is a Layer 2 loop.

The VTP domain names do not match.

Only one switch can be in server mode.

S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

23. What is the result of adding the global command service password-encryption to the configuration of a router?

Line passwords are encrypted with type 7 encryption.

Enable passwords are encrypted with type 5 encryption.

All services must provide an encrypted password to function.

Only encrypted messages are allowed for router communication.

24. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows “up, line protocol up”. The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?

application layer

network layer

data link layer

physical layer

25. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?

local loop

DTE cable on router

demarcation point

demilitarized zone

26. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.

Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.

The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

27.

Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?

Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.

Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.

Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .

28.

Refer to the exhibit. The corporate network that is shown has been assigned network 172.16.128.0/19 for use at branch office LANs. If VLSM is used, what mask should be used for addressing hosts at Branch4 with minimal waste from unused addresses?

/19

/20

/21

/22

/23

/24

29.

Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 have not received any RIP routing updates. What will fix the issue?

Enable RIP authentication on R2.

Issue the ip directed-broadcast command on R2.

Change the subnet masks to 10.11.12.0/8 and 172.16.40.0/16 on R2.

Enable CDP on R2 so that the other routers will receive routing updates.

30.

Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?

improper LMI type

interface reset

PPP negotiation failure

unplugged cable

31. Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session?

PAP uses a two-way handshake.

The password is unique and random.

PAP conducts periodic password challenges.

PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.

32. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.

Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.

RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.

IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

33. What is tunneling?

using digital certificates to ensure that data endpoints are authentic

creating a hash to ensure the integrity of data as it traverses a network

using alternate paths to avoid access control lists and bypass security measures

encapsulating an entire packet within another packet for transmission over a network

34. Which statement is true about NCP?

Link termination is the responsibility of NCP.

Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP.

NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices.

NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.

35.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is creating a prototype to verify the new WAN design. However, the communication between the two routers cannot be established. Based on the output of the commands, what can be done to solve the problem?

Replace the serial cable .

Replace the WIC on RA.

Configure RA with a clock rate command.

Issue a no shutdown interface command on RB.

36.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output as shown, which two statements correctly define how the router will treat Telnet traffic that comes into interface FastEthernet 0/1? (Choose two).

Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is denied.

Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is denied.

Telnet to 172.16.0.0/24 is permitted.

Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is permitted.

Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is permitted.

37. Which Frame Relay flow control mechanism is used to signal routers that they should reduce the flow rate of frames?

DE

BE

CIR

FECN

CBIR

38.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a standard access control list on Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.0.0/24 network from reaching the Internet. The access control list also permits traffic from the 192.168.0.0/24 network to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network. On which interface and in which direction should the access control list be applied?

interface Fa0/0, inbound

interface Fa0/0, outbound

interface S0/0/0, inbound

interface S0/0/0, outbound

39. Which configuration on the vty lines provides the best security measure for network administrators to remotely access the core routers at headquarters?

Answer: 3nd option

40.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?

The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.

The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.

The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.

Port address translation is in effect.

41. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.

ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.

Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

42.

Refer to the exhibit. Headquarters is connected through the Internet to branch office A and branch office B. Which WAN technology would be best suited to provide secure connectivity between headquarters and both branch offices?

ATM

VPN

ISDN

Frame Relay

broadband DSL

43. Which three physical network problems should be checked when a bottom-up troubleshooting approach has been chosen to troubleshoot network performance? (Choose three.)

cable connectivity

high collision counts

STP failures and loops

address mapping errors

high CPU utilization rates

excess packets that are filtered by the firewall

44.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to configure a Frame Relay network. The administrator enters the commands as shown in the exhibit on R2, but the Frame Relay PVCs are inactive. What is the problem?

The incorrect DLCI numbers are being configured on R2.

The S0/0/0 interface on R2 needs to be point-to-point.

The frame-relay map commands are missing the cisco keyword at the end.

A single router interface cannot connect to more than one Frame Relay peer at a time.

45. Which IP address and wildcard mask would be used in an ACL to block traffic from all hosts on the same subnet as host 192.168.16.43/28?

access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.31

access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.16 0.0.0.31

access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.32 0.0.0.16

access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.32 0.0.0.15

access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.43 0.0.0.16

46. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?

PPP with PAP

PPP with CHAP

HDLC with PAP

HDLC with CHAP

47. When would the multipoint keyword be used in Frame Relay PVCs configuration?

when global DLCIs are in use

when using physical interfaces

when multicasts must be supported

when participating routers are in the same subnet

48. A network technician analyzes the network and notices late collisions. The collisions occur accompanied by jabber that originates from the server. What is the likely cause of the problem?

faulty switch port

web server CPU overload

faulty NIC in the web server

misconfiguration of web server services

49.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?

10.1.1.2:1234

172.30.20.1:1234

172.30.20.1:3333

192.168.1.2:80

50.

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?

The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.

STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.

Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.

S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

51. When Frame Relay encapsulation is used, what feature provides flow control and exchanges information about the status of virtual circuits?

LCP

LMI

DLCI

Inverse ARP

52. A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained?

The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic.

The West side of town is downloading larger packets.

The service provider is closer to the location on the East side.

More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.

No related posts.

2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
physical
data link
network
transport

3.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
A carrier detect signal is present.
Keepalives are being received successfully.
Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
The reliability of this link is very low.
The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

4. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
transport layer
application layer

5. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
narrowing the scope
gathering symptoms from suspect devices
analyzing existing symptoms
determining ownership

6. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
physical
data link
network
transport

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper layers.

8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
bottom up
top down
divide and conquer
middle out

9. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
application
transport
network
data link
physical

10.

Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
physical
data link
network
application

11. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

13. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
incorrect encapsulation
incorrect STP configuration
incorrect ARP mapping
incorrect clock rate

14. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the application servers in the data center.
The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.

15. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
baselining tool
knowledge base
protocol analyzer
cable tester

16. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
cable analyzer
network analyzer
protocol analyzer
knowledge base

17. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
cable types
connector types
interface identifiers
DLCI for virtual circuits
operating system versions

18. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
information about the network design
IP addressing allocation on the network
requirements about the service provider setup
requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
expected performance under normal operating conditions

19. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
Determine fault.
Get to know the user to build trust.
Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

20. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
All layers
Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
Layer 6 and Layer 7

No related posts.

Contact: ccnafinal.net@gmail.com

1.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?
ip nat pool statement
access-list statement
ip nat inside is on the wrong interface
interface s0/0/2 should be a private IP address

2.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

3. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
32
48
64
128

4.

ccna 4 chapter 7 answers

Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?
0
1
2
3
4

5.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.125
179.9.8.95
179.9.8.98
179.9.8.101
179.9.8.112

6.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP server service is not enabled.
The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

7. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
8
16
80
128

8. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.

9.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?
It will randomly generate a 64 bit interface ID.
It will assign an address from the pool of IPv6 private addresses to the interface.
It will assign only the registry prefix of the IPv6 Global Unicast address to the interface.
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.

10. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses the word “overload” at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

11.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)
dynamic NAT
NAT with overloading
open port 20
open port 21
open port 23
NAT with port forwarding

12.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?
The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
The DHCP server dynamically assigns the addresses.
The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for static assignment.
The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for dynamic assignment.

13.

ccna 4 chapter 7 answers

Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?
A user on the inside sees web traffic coming from 192.168.1.3 using port 8080.
The address 172.16.1.1 is translated into an address from the pool beginning with 192.168.1.3.
A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.
A user on the outside must address traffic to port 8080 to reach the address 172.16.1.1.

14.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned or renewed by this DHCP server?
1
6
7
8
9

15. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
It increases routing performance.
It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.
It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.

16.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?
10.1.1.1
172.30.20.2
192.168.1.2
255.255.255.255

17.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
Traffic from the 209.165.200.0 network will be translated.
Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.
A pool of inside global IP addresses from the 10.1.1.0 network will be used for translation.
External users from the 209.165.200.0 network can reach private addresses on the 10.1.1.0 and 10.1.2.0 networks.

18. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?
NAT overload
static NAT
dynamic NAT
PAT

19.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
10.1.1.2
192.168.0.100
209.165.20.25
any address in the 10.1.1.0 network

20. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
The supervisor wants to clear any confidential information that may be seen by the technician.
Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.
The translation table may be full and is unable to make new translations until space is available.
Clearing the translations causes the starting configuration to be reread and may correct translation problems that have occurred.

21. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?
Replace the devices on the public network with devices that support IPv6.
Configure RIPng on the border routers of each IPv6 island.
Configure the routers to take advantage of dual-stack technology.
Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.

No related posts.

2. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
accounting
authentication
authorization
data availability
data confidentiality
data integrity

3. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
AES
DES
AH
hash
MPLS
RSA

4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
Data is flowing downstream.
Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.

5. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
use higher RF frequencies
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic

6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
encryption
encapsulation
hashing
passwords

7. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
AH
L2TP
ESP
GRE
PPTP

8. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
ESP
hashing algorithms
smart cards
WPA

9. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
Diffie-Hellman
digital certificate
pre-shared key
RSA signature

10.

ccna chapter 6

Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
a GRE tunnel
a site-to-site VPN
a remote-access VPN
the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection

11. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting a single user environment.
Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections using POTS.

12. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
users are on a shared medium
uses RF signal transmission
local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

13. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker’s site?
a WiMAX tower
a one-way multicast satellite
a WiMAX receiver
an access point connected to the company WLAN

14. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
cable
DSL
ISDN
POTS

15. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
channel widths
access method
maximum data rate
modulation techniques
compression techniques

16.

ccna 4 chapter 6 answers

Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary permissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
All locations can support VPN connectivity.

17. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users

18.

ccna 4 chapter 6

Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

19. Which statement describes cable?
Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

No related posts.

2. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
The network administrator receives an error.
Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.
3. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

4. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

5.

CCNA Exploration 4 Accessing the WAN – Chapter 5 exam

Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

7.

ccna 4 chapter 5 exam answers

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

8. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

9. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

10. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the source
close to the destination
on an Ethernet port
on a serial port

11. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
by destination UDP port
by protocol type
by source IP address
by source UDP port
by destination IP address

12. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
Only named ACLs allow comments.
Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured two access lists on R1. The list inbound on the serial interface is named Serial and the list inbound on the LAN interface is named LAN. What affect will be produced by the access control lists?
PC1 will be able to telnet to PC3.
R3 will not be able to communicate with PC1 and PC3.
PC3 cannot telnet to R3 and cannot communicate with PC1.
PC1 will not be able to telnet to R3 and PC3 will not be able to communicate with PC1.

15. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
All traffic is implicitly denied.
FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

16. Which statement about standard ACLs is true?
Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.

17.

ccna 4 chapter 5 exam answers

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

18. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
packet size
protocol suite
source address
destination address
source router interface
destination router interface

19.

ccna 4 chapter 5

Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.

20. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?
blocked in and out of all interfaces
blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
permitted in and out of all interfaces
blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces

21.

ccna 4 chapter 5 answers

Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
ISP Fa0/0 outbound
R2 S0/0/1 inbound
R3 Fa0/0 inbound
R3 S0/0/1 outbound

22.

Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.

23. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?
dynamic
port-based
reflexive
time-based

24. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255

25. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
extended ACL
reflexive ACL
console logging
authentication
Telnet connectivity
user account with a privilege level of 15

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