CCNA 4 Final Exam Answers (C)
1. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
routable translation
dynamic translation
static translation
**port address translation
2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
**ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat inside serial0
**ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
ip nat inside Raleigh overload
ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh
3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
static
dynamic
**overload
private
public
4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
**192.168.146.0/22
172.10.25.0/16
**172.31.0.0/16
20.0.0.0/8
**10.172.92.8/29
5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?
Both links will transmit data at the same rate.
1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.
**Both links will transmit bits one by one.
The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.
6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)
DHCP uses TCP.
DHCP uses UDP.
**DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.
DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.
**DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.
**DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.
7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?
Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
**Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access
ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access
**ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access
9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?
show ip dhcp server statistics
show ip dhcp binding
**debug ip dhcp server events
debug ip dhcp binding
10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?
terminal adapter
modem
**CSU/DSU
PBX switch
ISDN switch
Frame Relay Switch
11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)
Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.
**Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.
**A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.
Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
**Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.
12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?
HDLC
IPCP
LAPB
**LAPD
NCP
SS7
13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
X.25
DSL
**ATM
ISDN BRI
ISDN PRI
14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?
DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.
DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.
DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.
**DSL has limited geographical availability.
15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.
It provides for redundancy.
**It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.
It is less expensive.
It provides faster connection time.
It provides less latency and jitter.
16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
DLCI
CO
**DCE
DTE
PRI
BRI
17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)
**Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.
A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.
Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.
A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.
A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.
**A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.
18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?
Nothing. The router is already suitable.
Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.
Purchase a U interface to install in the router.
**Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.
19. Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?
determines the next-hop address for a packet
**multiplexes signals from several sources
adapts information for use on a service provider’s network
used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network
20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
The frame contains an incorrect IP address.
**An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.
There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.
Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.
**The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.
21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)
**modem
router
**CSU/DSU
ISDN Switch
Frame Relay Switch
22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
**CHAP
**Stacker
IPCP
CDPCP
**Multilink
23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?
**username tampa password florida
username tampa florida
hostname tampa password florida
hostname tampa florida
24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)
**sends unencrypted authentication passwords
performs a three-way handshake
**allows repeated login attempts
uses the remote router hostname to verify identity
sends a random challenge throughout the session
25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)
to create firewalls on routers
**to conserve IP addresses
to translate domain names into IP addresses
to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address
**to hide internal addresses from external devices
26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)
**The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.
The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.
The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.
The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.
The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.
**The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.
27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?
Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
**Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?
exchange of call setup and teardown messages
PAP and CHAP authentication traffic
**Layer 2 messages on the D channel
protocol errors and statistics
Layer 2 messages on the B channel
29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)
the enable password on the remote device
the ip host configuration on the remote device
**the security server database for the username and password of the remote device
the hostname and enable password on the local device
**the local database for the username and password of the remote device
30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?
2
16
**23
24
30
128
31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
**Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
**Windows XP
**Windows 2000
32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?
MAC address of the Orlando router
MAC address of the DC router
192.168.1.25
192.168.1.26
DLCI 100
**DLCI 200
33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)
This is the first data frame sent by the router.
**This is a management frame.
The encapsulation type is Cisco.
The encapsulation type is IETF.
**The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.
The LMI type is Cisco.
34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
Link Access Protocol – Data
**High-Level Data Link Control
Logical Link Control
Serial Data Link Control
**Point to Point protocol
Binary Synchronous Control protocol
35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?
110
115
220
**225
36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)
**show frame-relay map
show frame-relay lmi
**show frame-relay pvc
show frame-relay interface
show interfaces
show ip route
37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)
**remote CSU/DSU failure
serial cable missing
interface shutdown
**keepalives not being sent
**clocking signal missing
38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
**The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
**A table of static mappings can be searched.
The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.
39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.
**Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.
The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.
LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.
**Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.
40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)
**The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.
The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.
**Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.
The LMI type is ANSI (0×64).
There is currently no congestion on the link.
41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
**exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
map DLCIs to network addresses
**provide flow control
provide error notification
provide congestion notification
**send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC
42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
**PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
**PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
PP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
**PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.
43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
**exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
sends authentication password to verify identity
**prevents transmission of login information in plain text
**disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
initiates a two-way handshake
44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider’s network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
circuit-switched
**packet-switched
frame-switched
dedicated-switched lines
lease-switched
45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
**Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
**The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.
46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.
A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.
**DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.
**The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.
A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.
CCNA 4 Final Exam Answers (D)
1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)
**improper placement of enterprise level servers
**addition of hosts to a physical segment
replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
**increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN
2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
**a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
**a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
**a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console
3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?
hold-down timers
poison reverse
**spanning tree protocol
time to live
split horizon protocol
4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)
CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
**The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.
The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.
SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.
SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.
**SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols
5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a ‘Password Required but None Set’ message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?
Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
**Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# line virtual terminal
Router(config-line)# enable login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# enable secret
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco
6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
low processor overhead
poison reverse
routing loops
split horizon
**shortest-path first calculations
7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?
The configuration register is set for 0×2100.
The configuration register is set for 0×2101.
The configuration register is set for 0×2102.
**The configuration register is set for 0×2142.
Boot system commands are not configured.
Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM
8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)
**show ip interface
show ip route
show processes
**show running-config
show cdp neighbor
**show access-lists
9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
destination address and wildcard mask
**source address and wildcard mask
subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
**access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999
10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)
most
**host
all
**any
some
sum
11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).
3 collision domains
**3 broadcast domains
5 broadcast domains
**9 collision domains
10 collision domains
13 collision domains
12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?
192.168.16.63/27
192.168.16.158/27
192.168.16.192/27
192.168.16.113/30
192.168.16.145/30
**192.168.16.193/30
13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
**prevents Layer 2 loops
prevents routing loops on a router
creates smaller collision domains
creates smaller broadcast domains
allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates
14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?
activates the OSPF neighboring process
**ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process
provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
streamlines and speeds up the convergence process
15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?
Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
**Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding
16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?
Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
**Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255
17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)
EIGRP
OSPF
**RIP v1
RIP v2
**IGRP
18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?
SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# duplex full
SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# full-duplex
**SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# duplex full
SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# full-duplex
19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?
EIGRP does not support VLSM.
The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
**An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.
20. According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP operation?
Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.
**Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully
21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)
local router
local Frame Relay switch
**remote router
**remote Frame Relay switch
R3 has the following configuration:
R3# show running-config
–some output text omitted–
interface serial0/0
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
encapsulation frame-relay
frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast
22. After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what might be problem?
**No clock rate assigned.
There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword
23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)
**The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.
The LMI type must always be manually configured.
The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.
The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
**The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.
**The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE
24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?
**Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured
25. Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)
The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.
The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.
**The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.
**The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.
Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.
It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR
26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and termination?
show interface bri0/0
show isdn active
debug isdn q921
**debug isdn q931
debug ppp negotiation
debug ppp authentication
27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)
**PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.
PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
**PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.
**PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection
28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)
establishes identities with a two-way handshake
**uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities
control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
**transmits login information in encrypted format
**uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks
makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session
29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?
They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.
They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network administrator.
They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.
**They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link
30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)
192.168.14.8
**192.168.14.16
192.168.14.24
**192.168.14.32
192.168.14.148
**192.168.14.208
31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
**1) fast forward
2) fragment free
3) store-and-forward
1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward
1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward
1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free
32. Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router prompt is shown?
**banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.
banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)
33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)
RouterA(config)# router ospf
**RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
**RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
**router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0
35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network addresses and their metrics?
TCP
**RIP
CSMA/CD
Ethernet
36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?
a router with a serial interface
a router with an S/T interface
**a router with a U interface
an ISDN terminal adapter
37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)
The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
**The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
**Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device
38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)
**data transport reliability
best path determination
**establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
best-effort datagram delivery
39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
**A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.
192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.
This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.
**This command is used to define a static route
40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
**SMTP
**FTP
SNMP
**HTTP
TFTP
DHCP
41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)
**BECN
DLCI
**DE
**FECN
LMI
Inverse ARP
42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?
Router# show ip interfaces brief
**Router# show ip route
Router# show cdp neighbors
Router# show running-config
Router# show protocols
43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?
router table
**topology table
DUAL table
CAM table
ARP table
44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)
**ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
**serial interface on router A
serial interface on router B
45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?
the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0
the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address
**the loopback with the highest IP address configured
the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces
46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?
172.0.0.0
172.16.134.0
**172.16.134.32
172.16.134.48
172.16.134.47
172.16.134.63
47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)
**Router# show ip protocols
Router# show version
Router# show interfaces
Router# show ip updates
**Router# show ip route
48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?
IP addresses
subnet masks
**port numbers
routed protocols
routing protocols
interfaces
49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
**This is a network address.
This is not a valid address
50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of the subnetworks?
200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192
**200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224
200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224
200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240
CCNA 3 Final Exam Answers (2009)
1. Refer to the exhibit. The Fast Ethernet port Fa0/1 on the switch is configured for auto-negotiate speed/duplex settings, and the NIC on the machine is set to 100 Mbps, full-duplex. The log error message shown has been received. What two solutions could fix the problem? (Choose two.)
Configure the switch manually for auto-negotiate speed/duplex and the NIC on the machine for 100 Mbps, half-duplex.
**Configure both sides of the link for auto-negotiate speed/duplex settings.
**Manually configure both sides of the link for 100 Mbps, full-duplex.
Manually configure the switch for 100 Mbps, full-duplex, and the NIC on the machine for auto-negotiate.
Manually configure the switch for 1000 Mbps, full-duplex, and the NIC on the machine for auto-negotiate.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and Host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
**Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Configure ISL encapsulation on both ends of the trunk.
3. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard? (Choose two.)
single-input, single-output
**improved range
requires less equipment
hardware upgrade for compatibility
**increased data rates
4. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
**Configure SW2 as a VTP client.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
Configure SW2 with no VTP domain password.
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
5. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
**After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
**If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.
6. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the information shown?
Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
Inter-VLAN routing is not functioning because the switch is still in the process of negotiating the trunk link.
**Interfaces gi0/1 and fa0/1 are carrying data from multiple VLANs.
The interfaces shown are shut down.
7. Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
**The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which device is the authenticator?
**access point
data server
client
RADIUS server
9. What three radio frequency bands are designated by the ITU-R as unlicensed for industrial, scientific, and medical (ISM) communities and are therefore supported by IEEE 802.11? (Choose three.)
**900 MHz
9 MHz
**2.4 GHz
5.7 GHz
**5 GHz
900 GHz
10. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
**Verify that the new switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.
**Select the correct VTP mode and version.
**Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
11. Which three configurations are required to allow remote access to a switch using the telnet command? (Choose three.)
**default gateway
**vty line password
console line password
HTTP server interface authentication
**IP address of the switch on the management VLAN
duplex and speed on the Ethernet port used for the connection
12. What are three benefits of a hiearchical network design model? (Choose three.)
**scalability
higher speed
mobility
**security
**manageability
cost
13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has added VoIP telephones and a VoIP gateway computer to the existing switch infrastructure, and then created the VLANs. What must be done to converge the network?
Combine all traffic except management traffic to a single VLAN.
Combine all traffic including management traffic to a single VLAN.
Use Layer 3 switching to combine the voice and data traffic at S1.
**The network is already converged.
Implement a common IP addressing scheme for both VoIP phones and PCs.
14. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping Pc3 but cannot ping Pc1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
**S1 port fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
Pc1 IP address is incorrect.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
Router interface fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.1 /26
192.168.1.11 /28
**192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
16. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
**switch F
17. Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with rapid PVST+. Port Gi0/2 on S2 is the root port. A network administrator issues the spanning-tree link-type point-to-point command on port Gi0/1 for switch S2. What is the result of this command?
**If the link between D1 and C1 fails, port Gi0/2 on S2 rapidly transitions to the forwarding state.
PortFast is enabled on Gi0/2 on S2.
Port Gi0/2 on S2 becomes a designated port.
Broadcast packets are restricted on the link between S2 and D1.
Port Gi0/2 on S2 becomes an edge port.
18. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
**A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
**An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
19. Refer to the exhibit. A host attached to port Fa0/3 of the switch can communicate with the host connected to port Fa0/16, but cannot communicate with the host connected to port Fa0/2. What could account for this failure?
Fa0/3 is down.
The trunk link to the router is down.
**The VLAN0010 network address is missing from the routing table.
Fa0/2 has been assigned to the administrative VLAN.
The router does not have a functional routing protocol installed.
20. A network administrator wants to add a new switch to the existing VTP domain. The new switch will have a VLAN that the administrator does not want visible to any other switches. All other VLANs should be visible on all switches, and all VLANs should be visible to the new switch. Which solution meets the requirements with the least administrative effort?
Add the switch in server mode. After all VLANs have propagated to the new switch, change the trunked link to access mode. Add the private VLAN to the new switch.
Add the switch in server mode. Add an extended range VLAN to the new switch as the private VLAN.
Add the switch in server mode. Add the private VLAN to the new switch. Enable VTP pruning and ensure that no ports are placed in the private VLAN on any other switches.
**Add the switch in client mode. After the existing VLANs have propagated, change the switch to transparent mode. Add the private VLAN.
Add the switch in VTP transparent mode. Manually add all VLANs to the switch.
21. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
all hosts
Host B and the router
**Host C and the router
the router, Host C, and all the hosts connected to Hub1
22. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.
**Standardized trunking protocol is used.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
**The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
**Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default administrative VLAN.
23. Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are listed beneath each interface. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which three port results are correct? (Choose three.)
**S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
**S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.
S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
**S1 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Switches C1, D1, D2, and S2 have all been configured with RSTP. S1 and S3 are not capable of rapid PVST+ and are in the default configuration. What three implications does this have for the Layer 2 network? (Choose three.)
Because S1 and S3 are not trunking, they have no spanning-tree instance.
A topology change BPDU from C1 forces the uplinks on S1 and S3 to stop forwarding traffic for twice the forward delay time.
**Port Gi0/1 on D1 and port Gi0/1 on D2 become designated ports.
**Loss of the root port link on S2 causes a rapid transition to non-designated port on S2.
**PortFast can be enabled on all ports on S1 and S3.
Gi0/1 on S1 and Gi0/1 on S3 become designated ports.
25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The SSH version number is wrong.
**SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
The transport input command is configured incorrectly.
Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
26. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
**802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type or length fields.
802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type or length fields.
27. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
**This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.
**Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.
28. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
**It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
**It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.
29. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
**A router is required to forward traffic between the hosts.
**The switch ports are on different VLANs.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
**The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
30. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
**The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.
31. How can the SSID for a wireless network connection be verified?
From the Network Connections menu, choose Add Wireless Network.
From the Network Connections menu, choose Properties.
**From the Network Connections menu, choose View Wireless Network.
From the Network Connections menu, choose Support.
32. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
client
root
server
**transparent
nontransparent
33. Refer to the exhibit. Two Catalyst switches are connected, and both switches have ports configured for VLANs 40 and 50 as shown. What will allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate with one another across the different switches?
**trunking
STP
VTP
routing
34. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?
It is configured in privileged EXEC mode.
It encrypts only line mode passwords.
**As soon as the service password-encryption command is entered, all currently set passwords formerly displayed in plain text are encrypted.
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command in plain text, issue the no service password-encryption command.
35. Refer to the exhibit. What does “FORWARDING” mean in the command output shown?
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
**The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
36. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter limitation is 9.
Convergence is slower as the BPDU travels away from the root.
**BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
37. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. How far is the collision propagated?
hub HB1
**switch SW1
switch SW2
router R1
router R2
38. Which method establishes an administrative connection to the wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
**From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.
39. Refer to the exhibit. All the VLANs configured on S2 are present on S1 but not S3. All switches are set to VTP server mode and have identical VTP domain names configured. What is the likely problem?
**The connection from S1 to S3 is not trunking.
S3 does not have a management VLAN configured.
The VLAN 99 interface on S3 is in a different subnet than S1 and S2.
S3 was joined to the network with a lower revision number than S1.
40. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network are interconnected via trunk links with VTP pruning enabled on all three switches. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
**VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005
41. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 1. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
**The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
42. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
**The newly inserted switch has a higher VTP server revision number, which caused the VLAN information in the VTP domain to be deleted.
The newly inserted switch has pruning enabled, which causes pruning of all VLANs from the trunk port.
The newly inserted switch received more VLANs from a connected switch than the switch can support.
Switches can exchange VTP information only through an access link.
43. Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/0 is configured as an edge port?
SW1 port F0/0 transitions to the learning state.
**SW1 port F0/0 can generate a temporary loop while in the sync state.
SW1 port F0/0 becomes a non-designated port.
SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
SW4 port F0/10 is forced into the blocking state.
44. Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
**forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
forward the frame out Interface3
discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces
forward the frame out Interface2
45. Power over Ethernet (PoE) allows the switch to provide power to which two types of devices? (Choose two.)
printer
**wireless access points
desktop PC
**IP phones
Scanners
46. Refer to the exhibit. Three new VLANs have been configured to improve the performance of the network. Host A would like to send a frame destined to Host B. Which statement is true about the process of sending the frame?
Host A sends an ARP request to the default gateway configured for VLAN10 to resolve destination MAC to IP address mapping. Then the frame is sent to switch SW1 only to switch the traffic to Host B.
**Host A sends an ARP request to the default gateway for VLAN10 to resolve destination MAC to IP address mapping. Then the frame is sent to router R1 to route the traffic to the appropriate VLAN.
Host A broadcasts an ARP request to the members of all VLANs. If none of the hosts replies with a corresponding IP address, the frame is dropped.
Because Host A and Host B are connected to the same switch SW1, Host A forwards the frame to Host B directly.
47. Which command finds the next available parameter for the SwitchX# clock command with the fewest keystrokes?
SwitchX# clock?
SwitchX# clock then Tab
SwitchX# clock then Ctrl-P
**SwitchX# clock ?
SwitchX# clock then “help”
48. Which three statements are true regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interface
**requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shut command
**can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
**more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
49. Refer to the exhibit. Two switches, SW1 and SW2, are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A is on the native VLAN. How does untagged traffic coming from Host A traverse the trunk link?
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 tags the traffic with the highest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
**The untagged traffic is forwarded as part of the native VLAN.
The untagged traffic is dropped because the trunk forwards only tagged frames.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1p encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
50. Refer to the exhibit. What encryption algorithm does the 802.11i standard employ for data encryption?
PSK
TKIP
WEP
**AES
51. A network administrator is tasked to select hardware to support a large enterprise, switched network. The system requires redundant backplane interconnections between eight high port density switches. Which hardware solution would be appropriate for this enterprise?
modular switches
fixed configuration switches
**stackable switches
uplink capable switches
link aggregated switches
52. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
**Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D
53. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
**Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
**The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.
54. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
**All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
**All interfaces are set to auto.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
**The flash directory contains the IOS image.
55. An access point supports both the 802.11g and 802.11b standards. A device that supports only 802.11b attempts to connect to the access point. What happens to the connection?
The network does not connect unless the user is within line of sight of the access point.
**The access point and all other connected users defer to the 802.11b standard.
The access point always maintains the higher standard and automatically upgrades the 802.11b device to the 802.11g speed.
Each user gets the speed supported by the wireless NIC on their mobile device.
56. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
**Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Trunk mode can be configured on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces only.
57. What two tasks must be performed when deleting an entire VLAN? (Choose two.)
Delete the vlan.dat file from flash.
Reboot the switch in order for the changes to take effect.
**Use the negative form of the command that was used to create the VLAN.
**Reassign the switch ports from the deleted VLAN to other VLANs if they are to be used.
Use the erase vlan command in global configuration mode.
58. How does an Ethernet switch handle traffic if the shared memory buffers and the port memory buffers are full?
The switch allocates additional buffers in NVRAM.
The switch defragments the frame and stores it in NVRAM.
The switch routes the packet to the destination port.
**The switch drops the traffic.
CCNA 3 Final Exam Answers (2010)
1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. The show ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on the Switch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in the exhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be applied
to the switch?
Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254
Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
**Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
2. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
**802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
3. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
**All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
4. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
**SSID
OFDM
WEP
DSSS
5. Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?
SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.
**SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.
SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
6. Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
QoS
routing
**trunking
VPN
7. Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
**S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
**S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
**This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
**This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.
9. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
**S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
10. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
**Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
11. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
**Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
12. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
**The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.
13. Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
**forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
forward the frame out Interface3
discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces
forward the frame out Interface2
14. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
**It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
**It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.
15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
**192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
16. Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
**SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
17. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
**A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4
**An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
computer B
computer B and Router1
*computer C and Router1
computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The SSH version number is wrong.
SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
**The transport input command is configured incorrectly.
20. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
**Cat-C
Cat-D
21. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
**VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005
22. Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.
**Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.
This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.
23. Which three statements are true regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
**requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
**more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
**can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces
24. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
**The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)
S1-Central# reload
S1-Central# erase flash:
**S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
**S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
26. Refer to the exhibit. What does “FORWARDING” mean in the command output shown?
**The switch is sending and receiving data frames
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
**Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
28. What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
**reduced contention for bandwidth
reduced size of the physical layout
**increased fault tolerance of the network
elimination of the need for wiring closets
elimination of the need for layer three functionality
**simplification of management and troubleshooting
29. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
**Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
**A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
**The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.
30. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
**VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.
31. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
AS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
**Gateway and CS1
Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2
32. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
**All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
**The flash directory contains the IOS image.
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
**All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.
33. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
**After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
**If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
34. Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
**The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
35. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
**Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
**Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
36. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
**Select the correct VTP mode and version.
**Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
**Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain
37. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
**only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E
38. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?
The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
**The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.
39. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
**This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
**Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch
Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.
40. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
**The switch ports are on different VLANs.
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
**The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
**A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
41. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
**switch F
42. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
hub HB1
**switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4
43. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
**BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.
44. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
**Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
45. What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
disable port security
make the port operational
override the default port behavior
**force the port to be a part of a single vlan
46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the information shown?
Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
**Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs
47. Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
AID
SSID
**BSSID
ESSID
48. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?
A syslog message will be logged.
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
**The incoming frames will be dropped
The security violation count will be incremented.
49. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
client
root
server
**transparent
50. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
**From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.
51. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
**The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.
52. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
**provides improved range
**permits increased data rates
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility
CCNA 2 Final Exam Answers
1. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
The address is in the wrong subnet.
***192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
The default gateway is incorrect.
The host address and default gateway are swapped.
2. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
***It is the metric, which is cost.
It is the administrative distance.
3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
***Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
Paris(config)# router eigrp
Paris(configrouter)# network 192.168.6.0
***Paris(configrouter)# network 192.168.7.0
***Paris(configrouter)# network 192.168.8.0
Paris(configrouter)# network 192.168.9.0
4. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
***tests Layer 2 connectivity
provides a layer of security
operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
***enabled by default on each interface
used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
***provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled
5. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
***neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled.
***router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces.
all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements
6. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
***OSPF interval timers mismatch
gateway of last resort not redistributed
***interface network type mismatch
no loopback interface configured
administrative distance mismatch
***inconsistent authentication configuration
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
***The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
***Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
***No default route has been configured.
8. Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem?
Router JAX has the wrong autonomoussystem number.
***The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router.
Automatic summarization is not disabled on the JAX router.
Router JAX has the wrong IP address on the Fa0/1 interface.
9. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
All routing protocols use the same metrics.
EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
***Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
The larger metric generally represents the better path.
10. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
***prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
***allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
***permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network
11. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
***S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1
12. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
The ip subnetzero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
***The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.
13. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and deencapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
***The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
***The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
***The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.
14. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
***network address
loopback address
autonomous system number
subnet mask
***wildcard mask
***area ID
15. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
***The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.
16. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled “?” in the graphic? (Choose three.)
***DCE
***CSU/DSU
LAN switch
***Modem
hub
17. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
***As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
***If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
***The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.
18. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
***The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
***10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
***192.168.2.0/24
20. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
***Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a nexthop address.
Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.
21. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
D, SWH2
A, B, D
SWH1, SWH2
***B, D
SWH1, A, B
A, B, D, SWH1, SWH2
22. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
***The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
23. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
A(config)# router rip
A(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.48
B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(configrouter)# no network 192.168.25.32
***B(config)# router rip
B(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip
24. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
***Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
***Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network
25. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
***DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.
26. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
***ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
***ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
27. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
static route to 10.1.0.0/22
RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
***0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1
28. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
***Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.
29. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
***The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
***The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
***The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.
30. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
Router_A(configrouter)# ospf redistribute defaultroute
Router_B(configrouter)# ospf redistribute defaultroute
***Router_A(configrouter)# defaultinformation originate
Router_B(configrouter)# defaultinformation originate
Router_A(configrouter)# ip ospf updatedefault
Router_B(configrouter)# ip ospf updatedefault
31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
***The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.
32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
***172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1
33. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
***S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
34. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
Perform the POST routine.
Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
Load the runningconfig file from RAM.
***Locate and load the startupconfig file from NVRAM.
35. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
***It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down.
It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.
36. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
All passwords are encrypted.
Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
***Only the enable password is encrypted.
Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
Enable and console passwords are encrypted.
37. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
198.18.0.0/16
***198.18.48.0/21
198.18.32.0/22
198.18.48.0/23
198.18.49.0/23
198.18.52.0/22
38. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
***Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.
39. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
1
***2
3
4
5
6
40. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.
***The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.
41. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
172.16.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/10
***172.16.0.0/13
172.16.0.0/20
172.16.0.0/24
42. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.
prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad.
removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
***limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded.
used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers
43. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
***The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
44. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
***R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0
45. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
The routers must elect a designated router.
***The routers must agree on the network type.
***The routers must use the same dead interval.
The routers must exchange link state requests.
The routers must exchange database description packets.
46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
The static route will not work correctly.
***Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.
47. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
***Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
***Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.
48. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
***used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests
49. What is the first step OSPF and ISIS routers take in building a shortest path first database?
***learn about directly connected networks
send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies
choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table
flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states
50. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
***EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.
51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the 10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
Reboot the routers.
Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
Check to see if the cable is loose between BOS and JAX.
Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
***Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.
52. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
triggered updates
poison reverse
hold-down timers
***split horizon
53. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM loads the bootstrap
RAM stores the operating system
Flash executes diagnostics at boot-up
***NVRAM stores the configuration file
ROM stores the backup configuration file
***POST runs diagnostics on hardware modules
54. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
***packet switching
microsegmentation
domain name resolution
***path selection
flow control
55. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
ADC
ABC
***It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.
56. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
***Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.
57. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
***They are aware of the complete network topology.
They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
***They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.
58. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
***OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
RIP does not support classless routing.
***EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
***RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.
CCNA 1 Final Exam Answers
1. Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?
issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
**issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1
issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1
2. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)
**172.16.4.63 /26
172.16.4.129 /26
**172.16.4.191 /26
172.16.4.51 /27
**172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.221 /27
3. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?
Flash
**NVRAM
RAM
ROM
4. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command?
Switch-6J>
**Switch-6J#
Switch-6J(config)#
Switch-6J(config-if)#
Switch-6J(config-line)#
5. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
**10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
**172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
**192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255
6. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)
**segment1
segment2
**segment3
**segment4
segment5
7. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?
Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.
*Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.
8. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
**IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
9. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
**Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94
10. Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet straight-through.
**The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.
The cable is suitable for use as a rollover cable.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet crossover.
**The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.
11. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
**subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure
12. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
**1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA
13. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?
Host A was assigned a network address.
Host B was assigned a multicast address.
Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
**The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.
14. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
**A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
**All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
**After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.
15. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?
**London
Paris
Athens
Ankara
PC4
16. Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?
The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
**The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.
17. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?
vty
aux
console
**enable secret
enable password
18. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?
connectionless acknowledgements
**upper-layer connection-oriented protocols
Network layer IP protocols
Transport layer UDP protocols
19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)
The data is encrypted.
**The connection type is called a VTY session.
A server process is running on PC1.
A GET request is sent to RouterB.
**The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.
20. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?
access point
host
hub
**router
switch
21. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)
**physical addressing
encoding
routing
cabling
**media access control
22. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# line vty 0 3
Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login
The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
**The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0″.
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
**Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.
23. Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?
**only computer D
only computer A and computer D
only computer B, computer C, and computer D
all computers
24. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)
**A single broadcast domain is present
Two logical address ranges are required.
Three broadcast domains are shown.
Four networks are needed.
**Five collision domains exist.
25. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
**when the interface is functioning as a DCE device
26. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
**TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
**TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
**TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.
27. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?
0 to 255
**0 to 1023
1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535
28. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?
console
enable
**enable secret
VTY
29. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
**255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
30. Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?
The host’s default gateway.
The host’s IP address.
**The host’s primary domain name server.
The IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local.
The IP address of the host’s homepage.
31. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
**A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J
32. Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?
a FTP client
a telnet client
**a terminal emulation program
a web browser
33. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)
This is a server response.
The UDP protocol is being used.
**The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
**The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.
34. Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)
192.168.18.38
192.168.18.48
**192.168.18.49
**192.168.18.52
**192.168.18.59
192.168.18.63
35. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
**172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192
36. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?
two networks routing the packets
**two applications communicating the data
two hosts at either end of the communication
two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame
37. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?
127.0.0.1
192.168.64.196
**192.168.254.1
192.168.254.9
192.168.254.254
38. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
uses a flat structure
prevent broadcasts
**heirarchical
**uniquely identifies each host
48 bits in length
**contains a network portion
39. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?
**service port number
host logical address
device physical address
virtual connection identifier
40. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
**The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
**The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
**The prefix of the computer address is /27.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.
41. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?
star
ring
point-to-point
**multiaccess
mesh
42. Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?
application
presentation
session
**transport
43. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?
leaving host A
leaving ATL
**leaving Dallas
leaving NYC
44. Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
**3
4
5
7
45. Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network
46. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 – rollover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – rollover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
**Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – straight-through cable
Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
47. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?
00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
**198.133.219.25:80
198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
48. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)
This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
The data is flowing from server to client.
**The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
**The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
49. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?
**address translation
DHCP services
ftpd
web server
50. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)
10 Base-T
10 Base-2
10 Base-5
**100 Base-FX
100 Base TX
**1000 Base LX
CCNA 4 Final answers (100% Guaranteed – Updated Dec 2010)
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1. Which two statements are true about IPv6 link local addresses? (Choose two.)
They begin with the 2000::/3 prefix.
They begin with the FE80::/10 prefix.
They are assigned by IANA to an organization.
They must be manually configured by the administrator.
They are assigned to a host by a stateless autoconfiguration process.
2. Refer to the exhibit. What is another way to represent this IPv6 address?
2031::130F::9C0::130B
2031::130F::9C0:0:130B
2031:0:130F::9C0::130B
2031:0:130F::9C0:0:130B
3. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.3.17″. What is the problem?
The address 192.168.3.17 address is already in use by Fa0/0.
The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is configured incorrectly.
The ip helper-address command should be used on the Fa0/0 interface.
The 192.168.3.17 address has not been excluded from the 192Network pool.
4. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 10.10.4.1 10.10.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 10.10.4.1 and 10.10.4.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 10.10.4.1 and 10.10.4.5.
The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 10.10.4.1 to 10.10.4.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 10.10.4.1 and 10.10.4.5.
5. Refer to the exhibit. PC1, PC2, and PC3 are configured with dynamic address assignments. PC2 is assigned an IP address from the DHCP server. What would account for the IP addresses that are currently assigned to PC1 and PC3?
Switch S2 port Fa0/12 is configured for full-duplex.
These addresses were included in the DHCP server pools.
Router R1 has a misconfigured IP address on interface Fa1/0.
R1 interface Fa0/0 is not in the same network as the DHCP server.
R1 interfaces Fa0/0 and Fa1/0 do not include the ip helper-address command.
6. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to Web Server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from Web Server when received at R1?
10.1.1.2:80
10.1.1.2:1234
172.30.20.1:1234
172.30.20.1:3333
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command would result in the output in the exhibit?
ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 172.16.76.3
ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 192.168.0.10
ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 10.1.200.254
ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 192.168.0.10
ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 172.16.76.3
ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 10.1.200.254
8. At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?
demilitarized zone (DMZ)
demarcation point
local loop
cloud
9. Which additional functionality is available on an interface when the encapsulation is changed from HDLC to PPP?
flow control
error control
authentication
synchronous communication
10. Which statement accurately describes a role that is played in establishing a WAN connection?
ISDN and ATM are circuit-switched technologies that are used to establish on demand a path through the service provider network.
Data link layer protocols like PPP and HDLC define how data is encapsulated for transmission across a WAN link.
A packet-switching network establishes a dedicated circuit between nodes for the duration of the communication session.
Frame Relay switches are normally considered to be customer premises equipment (CPE) and are maintained by local administrators.
11. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?
ATM
Frame Relay
HDLC
PPP
SDLC
12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is creating a prototype to verify the new WAN design. However, the communication between the two routers cannot be established. Based on the output of the commands, what can be done to solve the problem?
Replace the serial cable .
Replace the WIC on RA.
Configure RA with a clock rate command.
Issue a no shutdown interface command on RB.
13. Which protocol is used to authenticate connections over serial links securely?
CHAP
HDLC
SLIP
PAP
14. Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session?
PAP uses a two-way handshake.
The password is unique and random.
PAP conducts periodic password challenges.
PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.
15. What is an accurate description of CHAP when used with PPP on a serial connection between two routers?
A username and password are sent to the peer router, which replies with an accept or reject message.
A username and password are sent to the peer router. If these match the configuration in the peer, the peer in turn provides a username and password to the initiating router.
A challenge message is sent to the peer router, which responds with its username and a calculated value based on a shared secret. This value is then compared by the challenger to its own calculations.
An encrypted password is sent to the peer router, which decrypts it and compares it to a shared secret. If the decrypted passwords match, the peer sends the encrypted password back to the initiating router.
16. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure
17. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
to create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers
18. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)
reduced jitter
reduced costs
reduced latency
the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth
the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers
19. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the San Jose router to the DC router?
DLCI 103
DLCI 301
172.16.1.18
172.16.1.19
20. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?
BE
DE
CIR
CBIR
21. When Frame Relay encapsulation is used, what feature provides flow control and exchanges information about the status of virtual circuits?
LCP
LMI
DLCI
Inverse ARP
22. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The
LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.
23. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
24. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?
The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
A congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.
25. Which IEEE 802.16 broadband wireless technology allows users to connect to the ISP at speeds comparable to DSL and cable?
Wi-Fi
satellite
WiMAX
Metro Ethernet
26. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
encapsulation
encryption
hashing
27. Which statement about a VPN is true?
VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.
DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.
VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.
Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.
28. From observing lots of port scans and ping sweeps on the company network, an administrator has determined that an edge router is experiencing an attack. These exploits are examples of what type of network attack?
DoS
access
reconnaissance
man-in-the-middle
29. A network administrator determines that falsified routing information is propagating through the network.
What action can be used to address this threat?
Update the IOS images.
Change console passwords.
Employ end-user authentication.
Configure routing protocol authentication.
30. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the configuration of R1?
The remote session is encrypted.
A password is sent in plain text.
A connection that is using secure HTTP is enabled.
A local username database is used for authentication.
31. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
use the copy tftp: flash: command
boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes
32. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?
Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.
33. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is considering updating the IOS on Router1. What version of IOS is currently installed on Router1?
1
12.4
15
1841
34. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?
A wildcard mask must be created by inverting the subnet mask.
A wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
A wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 means the address should match exactly.
A wildcard mask uses a “1″ to identify IP address bits that must be checked.
35. Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?
extended
reflexive
standard
time-based
36. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?
protocol type
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
37. A technician is editing and reapplying ACL 115 to a router, what is the result of adding the command access-list 115 permit tcp any 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 established to the ACL when it is reapplied to the router?
All traffic that comes from 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed.
All TCP traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 is permitted.
Any SYN packets that are sent to 172.16.0.0/16 will be permitted.
Responses to traffic that originates from the 172.16.0.0/16 network are allowed.
38. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface Fa0/1, inbound
interface Fa0/1, outbound
39. Which option represents a best practice for applying ACLs?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces use fewer router resources.
Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.
40. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request packet that enters interface S0/0/0, and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 172.16.1.5?
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that is created by access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 command, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.
41. A network administrator has moved the company intranet web server from a switch port to a dedicated router interface. How can the administrator determine how this change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet?
Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Interview departmental administrative assistants and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.
42. Technicians from Company A and Company B are comparing DSL transfer rates at their respective companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. Company A, however, reports higher download speeds than Company B. Which option best explains the reason for Company A having the higher download speeds?
Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.
Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than does Company A.
Company B shares the connection to the DSLAM with a larger number of clients than Company A shares.
The length of the local loop between Company A and the CO is shorter than the length of the local loop between Company B and CO.
43. Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties?
QoS
latency
reliability
confidentiality
44. A recently patched application server is experiencing response time problems. The network on which the application server is located has been experiencing occasional outages that the network team believes may be related to recent routing changes. Network and application teams have been notified to work on their respective issues. Which statement applies to this situation?
Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.
Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.
It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.
45. Because of a remote-procedure call failure, a user is unable to access an NFS server. At what layer of the TCP/IP model does this problem occur?
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
application layer
46. Refer to the exhibit. The corporate network that is shown has been assigned network 172.16.128.0/19 for use at branch office LANs. If VLSM is used, what mask should be used for addressing hosts at Branch4 with minimal waste from unused addresses?
/19
/20
/21
/22
/23
/24
47. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?
The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.
STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.
Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.
48. Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?
There is a Layer 2 loop.
The VTP domain names do not match.
Only one switch can be in server mode.
S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.
49. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with EIGRP in the same autonomous system. Computers PC1 and PC2 are not able to ping each other. Further investigation has revealed that the route to 192.168.10.0 is missing from the routing table on R2. What is the cause of the problem?
The networks are not correctly summarized.
The FastEthernet interfaces on R1 are configured as passive.
The network statements on R2 are incorrectly configured.
EIGRP on R1 does not recognize the 192.168.10.0 network.
50. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 have not received any RIP routing updates. What will fix the issue?
Enable RIP authentication on R2.
Issue the ip directed-broadcast command on R2.
Change the subnet masks to 10.11.12.0/8 and 172.16.40.0/16 on R2.
Enable CDP on R2 so that the other routers will receive routing updates.
CCNA 4 Final exam December 2010
CCNA 4 Final Questions December 2010
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CCNA 4 Final Exam Questions and Answers 2010
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Answers 93%
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Take Assessment – EWAN Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: Acceso a la WAN (Version 4.0)
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1
A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained?
The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic.
The West side of town is downloading larger packets.
More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.
2
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface Fa0/1, inbound
3
Which Frame Relay flow control mechanism is used to signal routers that they should reduce the flow rate of frames?
DE
BE
CIR
FECN
CBIR
4
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to configure a Frame Relay network. The administrator enters the commands as shown in the exhibit on R2, but the Frame Relay PVCs are inactive. What is the problem?
The incorrect DLCI numbers are being configured on R2.
The S0/0/0 interface on R2 needs to be point-to-point.
The frame-relay map commands are missing the cisco keyword at the end.
A single router interface cannot connect to more than one Frame Relay peer at a time.
5
What are two main VPN components that protect data from eavesdropping? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
encapsulation
encryption
hashing
6
Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure
7
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is not able to communicate with its peer that is connected to this interface. Based on the output as shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure
8
Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?
There is a Layer 2 loop.
The VTP domain names do not match.
Only one switch can be in server mode.
S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.
9
Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)
The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.
This interface should be configured for PPP encapsulation.
There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.
The physical connection between the two routers has failed.
The IP address of S0/0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.
10
Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?
BE
DE
CIR
CBIR
11
What are three attributes of a security policy? (Choose three.)
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It focuses primarily on attacks from outside of the organization.
It defines a process for managing security violations.
It should not need to be altered once implemented.
It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
12
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command would result in the output in the exhibit?
ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 172.16.76.3
ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 192.168.0.10
ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 10.1.200.254
ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 192.168.0.10
ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 172.16.76.3
ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 10.1.200.254
13
Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?
The commands are added to the end of the existing ACL.
The existing Managers ACL will be overwritten by the new ACL.
The router will output an error message and no changes will be made.
A duplicate Managers ACL will be created that will contain only the new commands.
14
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?
The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.
15
While configuring a router using RIPng and dual-stack technology with IPv4 and IPv6, the administrator receives an error message when inputting IPv4 routes. What could cause the error message?
IPv4 is not compatible with RIPng
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
The router interfaces have been configured with incorrect addresses.
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are shut down in favor of the newer technology.
16
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is teaching a trainee to interpret the results of various Frame Relay troubleshooting commands. What conclusion can be drawn from the output that is shown?
Neighboring routers should use DLCI 177 to reach the Branch router.
DLCI 177 will be used to identify all broadcasts that are sent out the Branch router.
The Branch router has the address 192.168.3.1 configured for the S0/0/0 interface.
To reach 192.168.3.1, the Branch router will use the virtual circuit that is identified by DLCI 177.
17
Which statement about a VPN is true?
VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.
DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.
VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.
Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.
18
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to Web Server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from Web Server when received at R1?
10.1.1.2:80
10.1.1.2:1234
172.30.20.1:1234
172.30.20.1:3333
19
What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 10.10.4.1 10.10.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 10.10.4.1 and 10.10.4.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 10.10.4.1 and 10.10.4.5.
The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 10.10.4.1 to 10.10.4.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 10.10.4.1 and 10.10.4.5.
20
Refer to the exhibit. Which data transmission technology is being represented?
TDM
PPP
HDLC
SLIP
21
Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)
Once a good password is created, do not change it.
Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.
Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.
Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.
Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.
22
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output as shown, which two statements correctly define how the router will treat Telnet traffic that comes into interface FastEthernet 0/1? (Choose two).
Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is denied.
Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is denied.
Telnet to 172.16.0.0/24 is permitted.
Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is permitted.
Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is permitted.
23
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is considering updating the IOS on Router1. What version of IOS is currently installed on Router1?
1
12.4
15
1841
24
Which additional functionality is available on an interface when the encapsulation is changed from HDLC to PPP?
flow control
error control
authentication
synchronous communication
25
When Frame Relay encapsulation is used, what feature provides flow control and exchanges information about the status of virtual circuits?
LCP
LMI
DLCI
Inverse ARP
26
What course of action will ensure data confidentiality?
Protect data from eavesdropping.
Guarantee that no alterations are made to the data.
Ensure that only authorized users may save the data.
Prevent unauthorized users from logging into the data network.
27
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
28
A network administrator is working with an applications team to fix a problem that a server based application is having with response time. The administrator has examined the network portions of the data path and identified several possible problem areas. The applications team has simultaneously identified potential issues with the current release of software. The network administrator begins addressing the network issues while the applications team implements software patches.
Which statement applies to this situation?
Changes to the network will reveal problems that are caused by the new patches.
Scheduling will be more difficult if the network and software teams work independently.
It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.
29
Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?
application
transport
network
data link
physical
30
A network administrator boots into ROM monitor mode while attempting to recover a lost router password. Which next step will allow password recovery with the least amount of disruption to the network?
Delete the startup configuration file.
Reinstall the IOS from a TFTP server.
Change the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration file.
Use the show running-configuration command to view the password in plain text.
31
Why is serial communication preferred over parallel communication for long distance WAN links?
Serial cables contain a single wire, resulting in faster transmission speeds.
Serial cables can take advantage of clock skew to increase the rate of transmission.
Parallel cables are more susceptible to crosstalk, resulting in more retransmissions.
Parallel cables send a single bit at a time making them slower than serial cables.
32
Refer to the exhibit. Which option displays the correct ACL that would need to be applied inbound on the S0/0/0 interface on R2 in order to permit any type of network traffic and block all FTP traffic coming from hosts on the 172.16.10.0/24 network going to the Internet?
33
Refer to the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The usernames are misconfigured.
34
A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure DHCP and static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
Configure dynamic NAT with overload.
35
What is the function of an intrusion detection system on a network?
to restrict access to only authorized users
to detect attacks against a network and send logs to a management console
to prevents attack against the network and provide active defense mechanisms
to detect and prevent most viruses and many Trojan horse applications from spreading in the network
36
Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
CHAP and HDLC
CHAP and PPP
PAP and HDLC
PAP and PPP
37
Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?
protocol type
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
38
Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the Orlando router to the DC router?
DLCI 123
DLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the DC router
39
Which statement is true about wildcard masks?
Inverting the subnet mask will always create the wildcard mask.
The wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
A network or subnet bit is identified by a “1″ in the wildcard mask.
IP address bits that must be checked are identified by a “0″ in the wildcard mask.
40
Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?
The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.
STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.
Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.
41
What are two major characteristics of a worm? (Choose two.)
exploits known vulnerabilities
attaches itself to another program
executed by a predefined time or event
masquerades as an accepted program
copies itself to the host and selects new targets
42
An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
application layer
43
A technician has been asked to run the Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on a customer router. What will be the result of this process?
It will guarantee that the network is secure.
It will implement all security configurations that Cisco AutoSecure offers.
It will automatically apply all recommended security-related configuration changes.
It will guarantee that all traffic is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.
44
A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which two suggestions should the administrator provide? (Choose two.)
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.
Place standard ACLs as close to the destination as possible.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces require fewer router resources.
Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.
45
What does an access control list determine when used with NAT on a Cisco router?
addresses that are to be translated
addresses that are assigned to a NAT pool
addresses that are allowed out of the router
addresses that are accessible from the inside network
46
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router.
It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.
47
Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 have not received any RIP routing updates. What will fix the issue?
Enable RIP authentication on R2.
Issue the ip directed-broadcast command on R2.
Change the subnet masks to 10.11.12.0/8 and 172.16.40.0/16 on R2.
Enable CDP on R2 so that the other routers will receive routing updates.
48
Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?
PPP
SLIP
HDLC
Frame Relay
49
At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?
demilitarized zone (DMZ)
demarcation point
local loop
cloud
50
An administrator issues the command confreg 0×2142 at the rommon 1> prompt. What is the effect when this router is rebooted?
Contents in RAM will be erased.
Contents in RAM will be ignored.
Contents in NVRAM will be erased.
Contents in NVRAM will be ignored.
51
A technician is editing and reapplying ACL 115 to a router, what is the result of adding the command access-list 115 permit tcp any 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 established to the ACL when it is reapplied to the router?
All traffic that comes from 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed.
All TCP traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 is permitted.
Any SYN packets that are sent to 172.16.0.0/16 will be permitted.
Responses to traffic that originates from the 172.16.0.0/16 network are allowed.
52
A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.
